Here's a question: suppose there are two philosophical views, A and B. Both of them equally well predict everything we see, including our intuitions about various philosophical matters. They also both have the same theoretical virtues—simplicity, unity, explanatory power, etc.
They also both have the same theoretical virtues—simplicity, unity, explanatory power, etc. To a detached observer with no prior commitments, they would seem equally likely. However, there is one difference between them: given our intuitions, A seems more true than B.
However, there is one difference between them: given our intuitions, A seems more true than B. A vindicates many of our intuitions, and considers as true many things we pre-theoretically belief. B, in contrast, has to be revisionary, considering our intuitions biased or otherwise in error.